1. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Archaebacteria (c) Eubacteria (d) Mycobacteria
2. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall,
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Nostoc (c) Mycoplasma (d) Bacillus
3. Which of the following components provide sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(a) Nuclear membrane (b) Plasma membrane (c) Glycocalyx (d) Cell wall
4. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
(a) within nucleolus (b) prior to fission (c) just before transcription (d) during S phase.
5. Methanogens belong to
(a) Eubacteria (c) Dinoflagellates (b) Archaebacteria (d) Slime moulds.
6. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
(b) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
(c) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.
(d) Golden algae are also called desmids.
7. Pick up the wrong statement.
(a) Some fungi are edible.
(b) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera.
(c) Cell wall is absent in Animalia.
(d) Protists have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
8. Cell wall is absent in
(a) mycoplasma (b) Nostoc (c) Funaria. (d) Aspergillus
9. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are
(a) holdfast (b) fimbriae. (c) mesosomes (d) rhizoids
10. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in
(a) cell membrane structure (b) mode of nutrition (c) cell shape (d) mode of reproduction.
11. The motile bacteria are able to move by
(a) fimbriae (b) cilia (c) flagella (d) pili.
12. Pigment containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are
(a) pneumatophores (c) heterocysts (b) chromatophores (d) basal bodies.
13. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?
(a) Blue-green algae (c) Archaebacteria (b) Saprophytic fungi (d) Eubacteria b
14. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to
form ATP?
(a) Chloroplast (b) Lysosome (c) Ribosome (d) Mitochondrion
15. Select the mismatch.
(a) Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria
(b) Large central vacuoles - Animal cells
(c) Protists-Eukaryotes
(d) Methanogens – Prokaryotes
16. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is
(a) lysosome (b) microsome (c) ribosome (d) mesosome.
17. Mitochondria and chloroplast are
(A) semi-autonomous organelles
(B) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising
machinery.
Which one of the foilowing options is correct?
(a) (A) is true but
(B) is false.
(b) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(c) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(d) (B) is true but (A) is false.
18. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are
(a) carotenoids (c) xanthophylls (b) anthocyanins (d) chlorophylls.
19. Microtubules are the constituents of
(a) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(b) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
(c) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
(d) spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia.
20. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
(a) Lysosomes (b) Mitochondria (c) Nuclei (d) Chloroplasts
21. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
(a) Lysosomes (c) Vacuoles (b) Mesosomes (d) Ribosomes
22. Cellular organelles with membranes are
(a) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei
(b) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
(c) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
(d) chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic b
24. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of
monomer are known as
(a) microtubules (b) microfilaments (c) intermediate filaments (d) lamins.
25. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by
(a) mitochondria (c) plastids (b) vacuoles (d) ribosomes
.
27. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) as energy transferring organelles
(b) in post translational modification of proteins and glycosylation of lipids
(c) in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy
(d) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates.
28. Which one of the following organelles in the figure correctly matches with its function?
a) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
(b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
(c) Rough endoplasmicreticulum, formation of glycoproteins
(d) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
29. A major site for synthesis of lipids is
(a) symplast (b) RER (c) nucleoplasm (d) SER
.
30. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?
(a) Amylase, Pepsin, Trypsinogen, Maltase
(b) Peptidase, Amylase, Pepsin, Rennin
(c) Lipase, Amylase, Trypsinogen, Procarboxypeptidase
(d) Amylase, Peptidase, Trypsinogen, Rennin
31. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
(a) Angiotensin and epinephrine
(b) Gastrin and insulin
(c) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(d) Insulin and glucagon
32. The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is
(a) nucleosidase (c) maltase (b) lipase (d) nuclease.
33. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by
(a) lipase (c) rennin (b) trypsin (d) pepsin.
34. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth as
they move down the alimentary canal?
(a) Pancreatic amylase → Salivary amylase → Lipases
(b) Disaccharidase like maltase → Lipases → Nucleases Pancreaô€†Ÿc amylase →
(c) Salivary amylase Disaccharidases
(d) Salivary maltase → Carboxypepô€†Ÿdase → Trypsinogen
35. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be
suitable for fertilisation?
(a) Gamete intracytoplasmic Fallopian transfer
(b) Artificial Insemination
(c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(d) Intra uterine transfer
36. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into
(a) Fallopian tube (b) cervix. (c) uterus (d) fimbriae
37. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of
this technique is
(a) Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer
(b) Germ cell Internal Fallopian Transfer
(c) Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
(d) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
38. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(c) zygote into the uterus
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube.
39. Artificial insemination means
(a) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(b) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(c) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
(d) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova. Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
40. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with
(a) acetocarmine (c) ethidium bromide (b) aniline blue (d) bromophenol blue.
41. DNA fragments are
(a) negatively charged
(b) neutral
(c) either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(d)positively charged.
42. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as
(a) vector (c) structural gene (b) plasmid (d) selectable marker.
43. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?
(a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(b) Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
(c) Negatively charged fragments do not move.
(d) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
44. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a
recombinant plasmid using
(a) EcoRI (b) polymerase III (c) Taq polymerase (d) ligase.
45. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
(a) Sall (b) Xho l (c) Eco RV (d) Hind II
46. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Thermus aquaticus
(d) Thiobacillus ferroxidans.
47. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
(a) DNase I
(b) Hind II
(c) RNase
(d) Protease
48. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
(a) Transferable (b) Single-stranded (c) Independent replication (d) Circular structure
49. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called
(a) template (b) carrier c) transformer (d) vector.
50. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
(a) selectable markers (b) ligases (c) restriction enzymes (d) probes.
51. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(b) Yeast artificial chromosome
(c) Plasmid
(d) Cosmid
52. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are
(a) T- DNA
(b) expression vectors
(c) T/A cloning vectors.
(d) BAC and YAC
53. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated
by
(a) electrophoresis
(b) restriction mapping
(c) centrifugation
(d) polymerase chain reaction.